? please
I can't get any advice about this from Uni today as they are all in training
For a systematic review, is it justifiable to make the inclusion criteria that the study must have had a comparison/control group and an exclusion of those using only normative data or data from prior studies?
I am googling to no avail!
I know you can select say just RCTs so I can't see how this is that different really.
Some papers refer to normed data from 25 years ago which clearly has a lot of threats to validity. I know I could include those and the refer to the limitations but equally, I wouldn't mind cutting a few papers out but need to be able to justify it and I'm not sure I can.
I have found this from a guide to systematic reviews from the Yprk centre for Research and Dissemination:
Study design
Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) and controlled trials. However, it is not
anticipated that many studies of these designs will be available. Therefore, if
information from controlled trials is not available, cohort studies are eligible for
inclusion provided that data from a comparison group are reported.
Case series and case reports are excluded from the review owing to the high
potential for bias in these study designs. Case–control studies (except where
nested as part of a cohort study) and economic evaluations are also excluded.
Which seems to say yes, you can go down a hierarchy of types of design and exclude those lower down but I feel I need to see it somewhere in writing that my assumption that normative data comparisons aren't as 'good' as those with control or comparison groups.
Any ideas?
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