My husband and I agreed on a financial settlement and this was presented to the court in the form of a consent order. My solicitor advised me at the time that I could have got more money, but I decided to go for an agreed amount to save the hassle. However, I've just got a letter to say that the judge has refused to sign the consent order. Below I outline the financials. The figures are (obviously) not correct but represent the same ratio! The judge says 'the petitioner (me) will after payment from the respondent (my husband) have approximately £10k whereas he will have approx £30k. I recognise the petitioner has a greater income' what does he mean by that last sentence? Is the judge saying that he thinks I should have a greater share? The wording isn't clear but I can't believe he would award me less because my solicitor said I had undersold myself. Anyone have an idea? Thanks